A) Projects risks are not considered directly because the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) that is used as the required rate of return for capital budgeting decisions is based on the riskiness of the firm. As a result, all projects, no matter their risks, can be evaluated using WACC.
B) Evaluating risk is important only when the projects are similar to the firm's existing assets.
C) Most firms adjust the discount rates used to evaluate new projects that have significantly different risks than the risk associated with the firm's existing assets.
D) Firms generally increase the required rate of return used to evaluate projects that have significantly different risks than the risk associated with the firm's existing assets, regardless of whether the new projects' risks are higher or lower.
E) None of the above is a correct answer.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Sensitivity analysis.
B) Beta, or CAPM, analysis.
C) Monte Carlo simulation.
D) Scenario analysis.
E) All of the above are discussed in the text as methods of analyzing risk in capital budgeting.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Interest expenses on the financing of the project.
B) Sunk costs of engineering study to determine the feasibility of the project.
C) Opportunity cost of land being used for project that the firm already owns.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) None of the above.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) The return on invested capital is the only relevant cash flow.
B) Only incremental cash flows are relevant to the accept/reject decision.
C) Total cash flows are relevant to capital budgeting analysis and the accept/reject decision.
D) All of the above are correct.
E) Only answers a and b are correct.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) A relatively risky future cash outflow should be evaluated using a relatively low discount rate.
B) If a firm's managers want to maximize the value of the stock, they should concentrate exclusively on projects' market, or beta, risk.
C) If a firm evaluates all projects using the same required rate of return to determine NPVs, then the riskiness of the firm as measured by its beta will probably decline over time.
D) If a firm has a beta which is less than 1.0, say 0.9, this would suggest that its assets' returns are negatively correlated with the returns of most other firms' assets.
E) The above statements are all false.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) If the beta of the asset is larger than the firm's beta, then the required return on the asset is less than the required return on the firm.
B) If the beta of the asset is smaller than the firm's beta, then the required return on the asset is greater than the required return on the firm.
C) If the beta of the asset is greater than the corporate beta prior to the addition of that asset, then the corporate beta after the purchase of the asset will be smaller than the original corporate beta.
D) If the beta of an asset is larger than the corporate beta prior to the addition of that asset, then the required return on the firm will be greater after the purchase of that asset than prior to its purchase.
E) None of the above is a true statement.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) 12.6%
B) -1.3%
C) 13.0%
D) 10.2%
E) -4.8%
Correct Answer
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True/False
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Well-diversified stockholders, because it may affect debt capacity and operating income.
B) Management, because it affects job stability.
C) Creditors, because it affects the firm's credit worthiness.
D) All of the above are correct.
E) Only answers a and c are correct.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Developing the original assumptions used in estimating each project's cash flows.
B) Making sure that no biases are inherent in the forecasts.
C) Deciding which projects are strategically important to the firm.
D) Setting the sales price and quantity estimates for use by other departments.
E) All of the above.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) -$2,822
B) $1,658
C) $4,560
D) $15,374
E) $9,821
Correct Answer
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True/False
Correct Answer
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True/False
Correct Answer
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True/False
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) -$2,418
B) -$1,731
C) $1,568
D) $163
E) $1,731
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Riskier over time, and its value will decline.
B) Riskier over time, and its value will rise.
C) Less risky over time, and its value will rise.
D) Less risky over time, and its value will decline.
E) There is no reason to expect its risk position or value to change over time as a result of its use of a single discount rate.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) Changes in working capital.
B) Shipping and installation costs.
C) Sunk costs.
D) Opportunity costs.
E) Externalities.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) initial investment outlay because these expenses effectively are part of the asset's purchase price.
B) incremental operating cash flows because shipping and installation costs represent expenses that have to be written off over the life of the asset.
C) terminal cash flows, because these expenses aren't paid until the end of the asset's life.
D) sunk costs because these expenses do not affect any current or future cash flows associated with investing in the asset.
E) None of the above is a correct answer.
Correct Answer
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Multiple Choice
A) it represents a tax-deductible cash expense.
B) the firm has a cash outflow equal to the depreciation expense each year.
C) although it is a non-cash expense, depreciation has an impact on the taxes paid by the firm, which is a cash flow.
D) depreciation is a sunk cost.
E) None of the above is correct.
Correct Answer
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True/False
Correct Answer
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